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Question

If a man sells $5$ toffees for $1$ rupee, he got $20\%$ loss. When he sells $3$ toffees for $1$ rupee, then what is the percent profit he got from it?

2016-12-22 17:22:19

Shivani
1 Answer

$5$ toffees for $1$ rupee $\equiv 3$ toffees for $\dfrac{3}{5}$ rupee.

since loss is $20\%$

$80\%$ of the cost price of $3$ toffees $=\dfrac{3}{5}$ rupee

$\Rightarrow$ cost price of $3$ toffees $=\dfrac{3}{5}×\dfrac{100}{80}=\dfrac{3}{4}$

Required profit percent

$=\dfrac{\left(1-\dfrac{3}{4}\right)}{\dfrac{3}{4}}×100=33\dfrac{1}{3}\%$

since loss is $20\%$

$80\%$ of the cost price of $3$ toffees $=\dfrac{3}{5}$ rupee

$\Rightarrow$ cost price of $3$ toffees $=\dfrac{3}{5}×\dfrac{100}{80}=\dfrac{3}{4}$

Required profit percent

$=\dfrac{\left(1-\dfrac{3}{4}\right)}{\dfrac{3}{4}}×100=33\dfrac{1}{3}\%$