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showing 1-2 of 2 (answers : 2, comments : 0),   sorted newest to the oldest
Question
If a man sells $5$ toffees for $1$ rupee, he got $20\%$ loss. When he sells $3$ toffees for $1$ rupee, then what is the percent profit he got from it?
 
(0) (0) Comment Answer
profit & loss
2016-12-22 17:22:19 
Shivani
2 Answers
$80\% \longrightarrow \dfrac{1}{5}$
$100\% \longrightarrow \dfrac{1}{4}$

$\dfrac{\dfrac{1}{3}-\dfrac{1}{4}}{\dfrac{1}{4}}=\dfrac{1}{3}$

$\dfrac{1}{3}×100=33\dfrac{1}{3}\%$
 
(0) (0) Comment
2017-01-06 10:05:57 
Csb
$5$ toffees for $1$ rupee $\equiv 3$ toffees for $\dfrac{3}{5}$ rupee.

since loss is $20\%$
$80\%$ of the cost price of $3$ toffees $=\dfrac{3}{5}$ rupee
$\Rightarrow$ cost price of $3$ toffees $=\dfrac{3}{5}×\dfrac{100}{80}=\dfrac{3}{4}$

Required profit percent
$=\dfrac{\left(1-\dfrac{3}{4}\right)}{\dfrac{3}{4}}×100=33\dfrac{1}{3}\%$
 
(0) (0) Comment
2016-12-22 17:38:47 
Jay Patel (Senior Maths Expert, careerbless.com)
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